Latest Braindumps SY0-701 Book | SY0-701 Latest Cram Materials

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CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q204-Q209):

NEW QUESTION # 204
A company has decided to move its operations to the cloud. It wants to utilize technology that will prevent users from downloading company applications for personal use, restrict data that is uploaded, and have visibility into which applications are being used across the company. Which of the following solutions will best meet these requirements?

A. An NGFW
B. A CASB
C. Application whitelisting
D. An NG-SWG

Answer: B

Explanation:
A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) would best meet the requirements stated in the scenario. CASBs can provide visibility into which cloud applications are being used across a company, restrict data that is uploaded to the cloud, and prevent unauthorized downloading of company applications for personal use. They act as a gatekeeper, allowing the organization to extend its security policies beyond its own infrastructure. CASBs provide features like visibility, data security, threat protection, and compliance, ensuring secure and only authorized use of cloud services by employees.

NEW QUESTION # 205
Which of the following provides the details about the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester?

A. Right to audit clause
B. Rules of engagement
C. Due diligence
D. Supply chain analysis

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Rules of engagement are the detailed guidelines and constraints regarding the execution of information security testing, such as penetration testing. They define the scope, objectives, methods, and boundaries of the test, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the testers and the clients. Rules of engagement help to ensure thatthe test is conducted in a legal, ethical, and professional manner, and that the results are accurate and reliable. Rules of engagement typically include the following elements:
* The type and scope of the test, such as black box, white box, or gray box, and the target systems, networks, applications, or data.
* The client contact details and the communication channels for reporting issues, incidents, or emergencies during the test.
* The testing team credentials and the authorized tools and techniques that they can use.
* The sensitive data handling and encryption requirements, such as how to store, transmit, or dispose of any data obtained during the test.
* The status meeting and report schedules, formats, and recipients, as well as the confidentiality and non-disclosure agreements for the test results.
* The timeline and duration of the test, and the hours of operation and testing windows.
* The professional and ethical behavior expectations for the testers, such as avoiding unnecessary damage, disruption, or disclosure of information.
Supply chain analysis, right to audit clause, and due diligence are not related to the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester. Supply chain analysis is the process of evaluating the security and risk posture of the suppliers and partners in a business network. Right to audit clause is a provision in a contract that gives one party the right to audit another party to verify their compliance with the contract terms and conditions.
Due diligence is the process of identifying and addressing the cyber risks that a potential vendor or partner brings to an organization.
References =https://www.yeahhub.com/every-penetration-tester-you-should-know-about-this-rules-of-engageme
https://bing.com/search?q=rules+of+engagement+penetration+testing

NEW QUESTION # 206
After an audit, an administrator discovers all users have access to confidential data on a file server. Which of the following should the administrator use to restrict access to the data quickly?

A. Content filtering
B. Group Policy
C. Data loss prevention
D. Access control lists

Answer: D

Explanation:
Access control lists (ACLs) are rules that specify which users or groups can access which resources on a file server. They can help restrict access to confidential data by granting or denying permissions based on the identity or role of the user. In this case, the administrator can use ACLs to quickly modify the access rights of the users and prevent them from accessing the data they are not authorized to see. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 308 1

NEW QUESTION # 207
Which of the following factors are the most important to address when formulating a training curriculum plan for a security awareness program? (Select two).

A. Channels by which the organization communicates with customers
B. Threat vectors based on the industry in which the organization operates
C. Cadence and duration of training events
D. The reporting mechanisms for ethics violations
E. Retraining requirements for individuals who fail phishing simulations
F. Secure software development training for all personnel

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
A training curriculum plan for a security awareness program should address the following factors:
The threat vectors based on the industry in which the organization operates. This will help the employees to understand the specific risks and challenges that their organization faces, and how to protect themselves and the organization from cyberattacks. Forexample, a healthcare organization may face different threat vectors than a financial organization, such as ransomware, data breaches, or medical device hacking1.
The cadence and duration of training events. This will help the employees to retain the information and skills they learn, and to keep up with the changing security landscape. The training events should be frequent enough to reinforce the key concepts and behaviors, but not too long or too short to lose the attention or interest of the employees. For example, a security awareness program may include monthly newsletters, quarterly webinars, annual workshops, or periodic quizzes2.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 34; CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, page 55.

NEW QUESTION # 208
An organization would like to store customer data on a separate part of the network that is not accessible to users on the main corporate network. Which of the following should the administrator use to accomplish this goal?

A. Isolation
B. Encryption
C. Patching
D. Segmentation

Answer: D

Explanation:
Segmentation is a network design technique that divides the network into smaller and isolated segments based on logical or physical boundaries. Segmentation can help improve network security by limiting the scope of an attack, reducing the attack surface, and enforcing access control policies. Segmentation can also enhance network performance, scalability, and manageability. To accomplish the goal of storing customer data on a separate part of the network, the administrator can use segmentation technologies such as subnetting, VLANs, firewalls, routers, or switches.

NEW QUESTION # 209
......

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Latest Braindumps SY0-701 Book | SY0-701 Latest Cram Materials

Latest Braindumps SY0-701 Book & Guaranteed CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Success with Updated SY0-701 Latest Cram Materials

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q204-Q209):

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